11 thoughts on “Slavery And The Constitution”

  1. Didja ever notice (as Andy Rooney might say) that the people who seem most outraged by American antebellum chattel slavery are usually the most un-libertarian?

  2. I like the response someone had that the remarkable or noteworthy thing about the constitution wasn’t that blacks and slaves didn’t get to vote; it was that anybody got to vote.

    1. Um, no. You could only vote if you were a white male over 21 who owned property.

      Most of the democratic reforms appeared when Populism reared its ugly head.

      Wanna see Walsh’s head really explode? Propose to her Pournelle’s position that it was the only conservative revolution on record. That would be fun. 🙂

      After all, many of the founding fathers saw themselves as defending the unalienable rights of Englishmen…

      1. Ah, no. Women and “non-whites” voted and were allowed to vote beginning with the founding. The key factor was Property Owner, not trivial factors like skin color, or sex. True, it was not a Universal franchise, but few saw that as important until, yes, the Populism movement.

        “During colonial times, the right to vote (also known as being enfranchised) was severely limited. Mostly, adult white males who owned property were the only people with the right to vote. Women could not vote, though some progressive colonies allowed widows who owned property to vote.” Note the weaseling. “Mostly”, “Women could not vote”(except for our example of women, you know, voting). Got to maintain the story, lest people figure out that our worse moments as a country overlap in an amazing fashion with Democrats in power……

        1. There certainly was nothing preventing women from having the vote before the 19th Amendment, but states that chose to offer women suffrage had to do so affirmatively — whereas male suffrage was implicit.

      2. Um, no. You could only vote if you were a white male over 21 who owned property.

        Methinks you’re misparsing his use of the word “anybody.”

        1. Perhaps. I had forgotten that certain states did allow the gentler sex to vote before the 19th Amendment.

          In a deeper sense I was correct in that the Founding Fathers were quite leery of democracy, and that the more we’ve migrated from republic to democracy, the worse things have gotten.

          Another proposed attempt to explode brains: tell your favorite prog that pure democracy leads to tyranny, then quote historical examples.

          Sit back and watch the earth-shattering kaboom. 🙂

          1. I’m not sure how much of a kaboom there’d be–many of the progressives I know seem to think that the elites should be in charge.

  3. Pop quiz: when did Europe abolish slavery?

    Answer: for France, Netherlands, Belgium, Norway, Denmark, Austria, and West Germany, in 1945 with the overthrow of National Socialism. For Czech, Slovakia, Poland, Latvia, Hungary, Ukraine, Russia, etc., in 1991 with the overthrow of International Socialism. By comparison, enlightened Saudi Arabia abolished slavery in 1962, decades ahead of most of Europe. Islam is better than Socialism.

    If anyone objects to the USA once allowing slavery, they must really hate socialism, because socialist slavery is abolished only with socialism’s abolition.

    1. You’re differentiating practical slavery from legally acknowledged slavery. I’m not convinced that Saudi Arabia is a non-slave state from a practical point of view.

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